Poor Employee Relations Essay Sample free essay sample

This instance survey follows a Tool Manufacturer where an in-depth organisational analysis was conducted comprising of qualitative interviews with senior direction. Hence. procedure function was conducted to detail the chief activities of the organisation. The procedure function demonstrated how the client and the organisation interacted. The client would ab initio near the Tool Manufacturer through associated selling or more typically on the footing of old work completed. On the footing of client demands a preliminary drawing of the tool would be drafted and sent to the client. The client would so accept the bill of exchange drawing. which would so be manufactured consequently. Nevertheless. non all was good. Several undertakings had been delayed. ensuing in a loss of gross for the concern. Worst of all. several tools had been manufactured to incorrect bill of exchange specifications. which so had to be scrapped and started once more. Such was the instance due to bury departmental s truggles. We will write a custom essay sample on Poor Employee Relations Essay Sample or any similar topic specifically for you Do Not WasteYour Time HIRE WRITER Only 13.90 / page An e. g. of such struggle is demonstrated between the Drawing Department and the Machine Shop where the Draft specification drawings instead than finalized drawings were given to the Machine Shop to bring forth the tool. There was deficiency of duty and answerability. This struggle non merely created internal jobs. but besides reduced employee motive and occupation satisfaction. Further research revealed that persons tended to see themselves working in a vacuity or in a cliche as opposed to working within the wider organisation. This had several effects including worker struggle. interdepartmental struggle and hapless employee dealingss. The struggle had a wider deduction that jeopardized the concern as a whole. Customer orders were being delayed. orders were non being produced to the right specification and some orders were of such inferior quality ( due to their frequent reworking ) that they broke down within hebdomads of being installed at the client site. This led to a impairmen t of the client’s repute of being a First tool maker. Measuring the instance IntroductionEmployee dealingss and worker struggles are ever debatable and the effects are hard to foretell ( Fortado. 2001 ) . Debatable dealingss can do ill-feeling between co-workers. take downing occupation satisfaction ( Biggs. Senior and Swailes. 2002 ) or doing emphasis and depression ( Dormann and Zapf. 2002 ; Friedman. Tidd. Currall and Tsai. 2000 ) . The above instance is a typical instance of bad employee dealingss which is due to miss of proper co-ordination. communicating. answerability and duty. We see that there is no harmoniousness between the sections and many of the bing literature has viewed manufacturing-marketing struggle mostly as an unwanted ancestor or result that is to be minimized. The instance shows that such struggle is so unwanted for an organisation that it non merely affects the employees of those concerned sections but threats the endurance of the organisation as a whole. Besides. it is seen that the demand to increase consumer orientation of the house has necessitated the integrating of selling and operations. But. unluckily. the relationship between these two maps has frequently been uncomfortable. if non adversial ( Karmakar. 1996. p. 125 ) . In the instance mentioned above. we see that due to worker struggles. there is deficiency of occupation satisfaction and employee motive. both which are indispensable for the longetivity of the organisation. Worker struggle is inevitable in any workplace due to the mutuality of the employees and the squads. To get the better of such struggles. first demand is that the organisation must hold a direction squad who is able. carnival. supply clear and crystalline communicating and set ends that are consistent and accomplishable. The top degree executives or the proprietor should see bettering direction accomplishments to decide employee dealingss and ill will efficaciously. To such an terminal. out bound preparation or any such measure can be taken. The directors must be trained plenty to undertake the employee jobs without mortifying any one party and taking a just determination to work out the issue. They should besides keep regular meetings to maintain path of where they are standing in their undertaking of presenting their merchandises. This manner the direction in the company will be in a better place to take a determination as to how the alliance of the work should be done. Besides. being cognizant of the activities held. on a regular footing will assist them to successfully run into peak periods of client demands. Coming back to Job satisfaction. as most of us know. it is the extent to which an person is content with his/ her occupation. The happier they are. the more productive they are. Besides closely linked is employee motive. Research and observations show that motivated employees are more productive and originative. The opposite besides holds true. Therefore. to get the better of this primary job. the direction should carry on studies or questionnaires to happen out the occupation satisfaction degrees. Depending on the responses. they should so concentrate on occupation design. occupation rotary motion. occupation enrichment and so on to run into the employee demands. They should concentrate on actuating the employees by honoring them suitably. Merely one time the working force of the organisation is content and motivated. can they be geared up t o carry through their ultimate aim- i. e. run intoing client demands. In this instance. we see success of the concern is wholly based on run intoing client demands and satisfaction. As discussed. before making here. the other internal jobs must be tackled and solved. However. seeking to make the solution for run intoing client demands. the organisation has to concentrate on get the better ofing the inter-departmental co-ordination. The duty of run intoing client demands does non lie with merely one section. It’s the combined attempt that finds the wages in this signifier. Hence. co-ordination is a must. But here we see that the two chief sections. the Drawing Department and the Machine Shop. which either straight or indirectly were related to guarantee client demands were non working in any manner of co-ordination. Hence it can be suggested that they focus on their communicating by following appropriate forums. Such has been proved and suggested clip and once more. Souder ( 1981 ) found that good communications and harmonious dealingss are more likely to take to merchandise success. The supervisors or the functional caputs of both these sections should concentrate on co-coordinating with each other and non viing. Since the employees are wo rking under these caputs. attention can be taken that they guarantee that they do their portion of the full procedure of production. for which they are entitled. Besides patterns like negative support or penalty can be adopted to guarantee timely public presentation as clip seems to be a really important factor for them. Another suggestion to get the better of the communicating job is that the company can follow the celebrated. good established and easy to understand model-the Johari Window by Joseph Luft and Harry Ingham. As the theoretical account is peculiarly relevant in today’s concern environment. it can certainly turn out to be of good usage for this company to assist better their interpersonal relationships and teamwork. The instance besides mentions that there is deficiency of duty on the portion of the Drawings Department. They are supposed to give a finalized image of the merchandise to be manufactured instead than a unsmooth bill of exchange. But they left that to be taken attention of by the Machine Shop. In making so. the Machine Shop went off path and therefore delayed run intoing the client needs. This is clearly a instance of deficiency of Unity of Direction. The full organisation should be traveling towards a common aim in a common way. ( Henry Fayol’s 14 Management Principles ) . Although their aim was to sell their tools. but the way of carry throughing this aim was non in line. This reduced client demand due to miss of quality in the tools. As mentioned in the instance. the Machine Shop went to the extent where several tools had been manufactured to incorrect bill of exchange specifications. which so had to be scrapped and started once more. The quality decreased. the trueness decreased. the outlooks of the clients decreased. To deliver such state of affairss. I would wish to propose that the direction focuses on squad edifice attempts. A squad can be defined as two or more persons who socially interact ( face-to-face or. progressively. virtually ) possess one or more common ends ; are brought together to execute organizationally relevant undertakings ; exhibit mutualities with regard to workflow. ends. and outcomes ; hold different functions and duties ; and are together embedded in an embracing organisational system. with boundaries and linkages to the broader system context and undertaking environment ( Alderfer. 1977 ; Argote A ; McGrath. 1993 ; Hackman. 1992 ; Hollenbeck et Al. . 1995 ; Kozlowski A ; Bell. 2003 ; Kozlowski. Gully. McHugh. Salas. A ; Cannon-Bowers. 1996 ; Kozlowski et Al. . 1999 ; Salas. Dickinson. Converse. A ; Tannenbaum. 1992 ) . As the definition suggests. if such is followed. decidedly half the mayhem of this Tool Manufacturer will be taken attention of. Harmonizing to ( Kozlowski. Gully. Nason. A ; Smith. 1999 ) . increasing competition. consolidation. and invention create force per unit areas for skill diverseness. high degrees of expertness. rapid response. and adaptability. Teams enable these features. Hence the direction should promote squad work instead than individualistic work. maintaining in head their line of concern. This will besides assist turn to the other large job that the company is confronting. i. e. the sections working in vacuity as opposed to working as portion of the wider organisation. I would besides wish to propose that the organisation can follow Entire Quality Management ( TQM ) which emphasizes that the quality of merchandises and procedures is the duty of everyone involved with the creative activity or ingestion of the merchandises or services offered by an organisation. necess itating the engagement of direction. work force. providers. and clients. to run into or transcend client outlooks. Decision Therefore. reasoning the instance. I would wish to state one time once more that acknowledging and work outing the issues of hapless employee dealingss and worker struggle should be the first measure in helping the organisation placing what issues are so involved in non run intoing client demand. All the possible several solutions. to assist decide this job has been put frontward. If adopted sacredly. consequences are bound to demo which will assist the company retain its competitory advantage by run intoing client deadlines and demands. Mentions dean. jr. j. w. . A ; snell. s. a. ( 1996. June ) . The Strategic Use of Integrated Manufacturing: An Empirical Examination. Strategic Management Journal. 17 ( 6 ) . 459-462. Retrieved December 8. 2012. from jstor. kozlowski. S. W. . A ; ilgen. d. r. Enhancing the Effectiveness of Work Groups and Teams. . 7 ( 3 ) . 77-81. Retrieved December 11. 2012. from jstor. northup. t. ( 2006. October ) . effectual communicating ; a necessity for successful organisation. Retrieved December 9. 2012. from hypertext transfer protocol: //www. lmgsuccess. com/documents/EffectiveComm. pdf tutek. p. h. . A ; ay. d. c. RESOLVING CONFLICT BETWEEN MARKETING AND ENGINEERING: A QUEST FOR EFFECTIVE INTEGRATION. . 535-536. Retrieved December 8. 2012. from hypertext transfer protocol: //www. opf. slu. cz/vvr/akce/turecko/pdf/Tutek. pdf

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay Example

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay Example Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay 1. Which if the following IPv6 address type is assigned to multiple interfaces but packets will only be delivered to one? a. Multicast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Broadcast Grade:1 User Responses:b. Anycast Feedback:a. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. Packets are delivered to the â€Å"first† interface only. 2. Routers operate at which OSI layer? a. Physical b. Transport c. Network d. Session Grade:1 User Responses:c. Network Feedback:a. Routers operate at the network layer making routing decisions based on IP addresses. 3. Which of the following is NOT a private IPv4 address? Choose all that apply. a. 192. 168. 5. 60 b. 172. 25. 6. 4 c. 10. 0. 6. 5 d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Feedback:a. The private IP address ranges are as follows. IP Class Assigned Range Class A 10. 0. 0. 0-10. 255. 255. 255 Class B 172. 16. 0. 0-172. 31. 255. 255 Class C 192. 168. 0. 0-192. 168. 255. 255 4. What is a server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set called? a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Load balancer d. NAT server Grade:1 User Responses:a. Proxy Feedback:a. A server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set of rules is called a proxy server. NAT servers perform private to public address translation; load balancers manage traffic between cluster hosts; and a firewall filters traffic based on access control lists. 5. Which type of device maintains awareness of the status of connections, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks? a. Stateless packet filtering firewall b. Stateful packet filtering firewall c. NAT filter d. Application-level gateway Grade:1 User Responses:b. Stateful packet filtering firewall Feedback:a. A stateful packet filtering firewall is one that monitors the state of each connection by examining the header of each packet. A stateless packet filtering firewall does not do this. NAT filters perform only private-to-public address translation. An application-level gateway provides protection to a specific application such as FTP. 6. Which of the following firewall services works at the session layer of the OSI model? a. Application layer gateway b. Stateful filtering c. NAT d. Circuit-level gateway Grade:0 User Responses:c. NAT Feedback:a. Circuit-level gateways work at the Session Layer of the OSI model and apply security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established; they act as a go between for the Transport and Application Layers in TCP/IP. After the connection has been made, packets can flow between the hosts without further checking. Circuit-level gateways hide information about the private network, but they do not filter individual packets. 7. Which of the following are the two main functions of a proxy server? a. Caching of web pages b. NAT c. Domain authentication d. DHCP Grade:1 User Responses:a. Caching of web pages,c. Domain authentication Feedback:a. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. b. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. 8. Which of the following devices can detect but not prevent attacks across the entire network? a. NIDS b. Host-based IDS c. NIP S d. Protocol Analyzer Grade:1 User Responses:a. NIDS Feedback:a. Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) detect but do not prevent attacks across the entire network. Host-based IDS can protect only the host on which it is installed. Network Intrusion Protection Systems (NIPS) can detect and prevent attacks across the entire network. A Protocol Analyzer can capture traffic but not act upon it. 9. When a NIPs blocks legitimate traffic, what is it known as? a. False negative b. True negative c. False positive d. True positive Grade:1 User Responses:c. False positive Feedback:a. A blocking of traffic is a positive action, and when it is in response to legitimate traffic, it is considered a false action; thus it is a false positive. A false negative would be when an action is NOT taken on traffic that is not legitimate. The other two options are normal actions; a true negative is the allowing of legitimate traffic, whereas a true positive is the blocking of illegitimate traffic. 10. Which of the following types of NIPS reacts to actions that deviate from a baseline? a. Signature-based b. Heuristic c. Anomaly-based d. Bit blocker Grade:1 User Responses:c. Anomaly-based Feedback:a. Anomaly-based NIPS recognizes traffic that is unusual and reports it. Signature-based NIPs are configured with the signatures of attacks. Heuristics looks for patterns in the traffic, whereas bit blocker is a not a type of NIPs. 1. Which of the following systems attempt to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications? a. DHCP b. DNS c. DLP d. STP Grade:1 User Responses:c. DLP Feedback:a. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect data by way of content inspection. They are meant to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications. As such, they are often also referred to as data leak prevention (DLP) devices, information leak prevention (ILP) devices, and extrusion prevention systems. Regardless, they are intended to be used to keep data from leaking past a computer system or network and into unwanted hands. 12. When a company buys fire insurance they are ____________ risk. a. accepting b. avoiding c. transferring d. reducing Grade:1 User Responses:c. transferring Feedback:a. It is possible to transfer some risk to a third-party. An example of risk transference (also known as risk sharing) would be an organization that purchases insurance for a group of servers in a datacenter. The organization still takes on the risk of losing data in the case of server failure, theft, and disaster, but transfers the risk of losing the money those servers are worth in the case they are lost. 13. Which of the following processes block external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser? a. URL filtering b. Content filtering c. Malware inspection d. Blacklists Grade:1 User Responses:b. Content filtering Feedback:a. Content filtering is a process that blocks external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser. URL filtering blocks pages based on the URL. Malware inspection looks for malware based on a signature file, and blacklists are items to be denied by spam filters. 14. Which of the following actions should NOT be taken for the default account on a network device? a. Delete it. b. Change the password. c. Disable it. d. Leave it as is. Grade:1 User Responses:d. Leave it as is. Feedback:a. The default account has a well-known username and password, so it should be either deleted or disabled, or at a minimum its password should be changed. 15. Firewall rules are typically based in all but which of the following? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. Port numbers . Content type Grade:1 User Responses:d. Content type Feedback:a. Firewall rules are typically based on IP addresses, MAC addresses, or port numbers, but they cannot filter for content. 16. Which of the following is the target of a double tagging attack? a. VPNs b. VLANs c. Collision domains d. DMZs Grade:1 User Responses:b. VLANs Feedback:a. A double tagging attack can enabl e the attacker to view traffic from multiple VLANs. 17. A network created to allow access to resources from the Internet, while maintaining separation from the internal network is called a ______? a. VPN b. VLAN c. Honeypot d. DMZ Grade:1 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. When talking about computer security, a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a special area of the network (sometimes referred to as a subnetwork) that houses servers which host information accessed by clients or other networks on the Internet, but which does not allow access to the internal network. 18. How can access to the remote management of a router be protected? a. Content filtering b. ACLs c. Firewalls d. IPS Grade:0 User Responses:c. Firewalls Feedback:a. Remote access to a router is usually done via Telnet or SSH. The port used (vty line) can be secured using an access control list. The other options can all be used to help protect routers but not access the remote management function. 19. You need to allow access from your network to all web sites. What port numbers should be opened in the firewall? Choose all that apply. a. 25 b. 443 c. 80 d. 119 e. 22 f. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:c. 80 Feedback:a. HTTP and HTTPS are the two services you need to allow access to use ports 80 and 443 respectively. 20. Which of the following mitigation techniques can prevent MAC flooding? a. Secure VLANs b. Prevent ICMP responses c. 802. 1x d. 802. 1q Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 1x Feedback:a. MAC flooding, which involves overwhelming the memory of the switch with MAC frames sourced from different MAC addresses, can be prevented by requiring authentication on each port through 802. 1x. Secure VLANs cannot prevent this because the frames don’t need to enter a VLAN to cause the problem. ICMP is at Layer 3, these frames are at Layer 2, and 802. 1q is a VLAN tagging protocol that does not prevent frames from entering the switch through access ports. 21. Which of the following attacks cannot be mitigated with a flood guard? a. Smurf attack b. Fraggle c. Teardrop attack d. Session theft Grade:1 User Responses:d. Session theft Feedback:a. The smurf, fraggle, and teardrop attacks all involve sending a flood of packets to a device, using different types of malformed packets. A session theft attack is when a session cookie is stolen and used to authenticate to a server. 22. Loop protection is designed to address problems that occur with which device? a. Switch b. Hub c. Router d. Firewall Grade:0 User Responses:b. Hub Feedback:a. Loops occur when switches have redundant connections causing a loop. Loop guard (or loop protection) can prevent loops on the switch. 23. When creating an ACL which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The order of the rules is important for proper functioning b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning c. The more specific rules should be placed at the beginning of the rule list d. Once created, the ACL must be applied to an interface Grade:1 User Responses:b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning Feedback:a. There is an implied deny all statement at the end of each ACL and it is not required to include one. 24. Which of the following is an example of insecure network bridging in a LAN? a. Laptop connected to a hotspot and an ad hoc network . Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time c. Router connected to two subnets d. PC connected with two NIC to the same LAN Grade:1 User Responses:b. Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time Feedback:a. When a laptop connects to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time, it can create a bridge between the two allowing access to the LAN. The other scenarios do not create a security problem for the LAN. 25. When the administrator creates a rule on the firewall to prevent FTP traffic, this is a type of __________rule. . implicit deny b. implicit allow c. explicit deny d. explicit allow Grade:1 User Responses:c. explicit deny Feedback:a. When traffic is specified to be prevented, it is an explicit deny. When it is denied simply because it was not specifically allowed, that is an implicit deny. 26. Network Access Control (NAC) is an example of_______________. a. role-based management b. rules-based management c. port-based access d. application layer filtering Grade:1 User Responses:b. rules-based management Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed. Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on- effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks. 27. What type of device is required for communication between VLANs? a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Firewall Grade:1 User Responses:c. Router Feedback:a. Hosts in different VLANs are also in different subnets and routing must be performed for them to communicate. 28. Which of the following would be least likely to be placed in the DMZ? a. Web server b. DNS server c. Domain controller d. FTP server Grade:1 User Responses:c. Domain controller Feedback:a. All the options except a domain controller are often placed in the DMZ so they are accessible to the outside world. A DC however is sensitive and should NOT be placed in the DMZ. 29. Subnetting a network creates segmentation at which layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. Layer 3 Feedback:a. Subnetting a network creates segmentation using IP addresses, which is Layer 3. 30. What service is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. DLP Grade:0 User Responses:a. NAT Feedback:a. Network Address Translation (NAT) is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address. The specific form of NAT required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address is called Port Address Translation (PAT). 31. Which of the following is NOT a remote access protocol? a. MS-CHAP b. CHAP c. LDAP d. PAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. LDAP Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used for accessing directory services such as Active Directory. It is not used in remote access. All other options are remote access protocols. 2. Which of the following devices are susceptible to war dialing? a. Modems b. Firewalls c. Content filters d. Load balancers Grade:0 User Responses:a. Modems Feedback:a. Any devices that accept phone calls such as modems or PBX systems with remote phone access are susceptible to war dialing. 33. When computers are not allowed to connect to the network without proper security patches and virus updates, the network is using a form of _____________. a. PAT b. DAC c. NAC d. DMZ Grade:0 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed. Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on- effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks. 34. Which of the following items do not need to be changed on a new router to ensure secure router management? a. IP address b. Administrator name c. Administrator password d. IOS version Grade:1 User Responses:d. IOS version Feedback:a. All the options except the IOS version can be set to defaults from the factory and should be changed because they are well known. 5. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud computing? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS) are all forms of cloud computing. 36. On which concept is cloud computing based? a. load balancing b. virtualization c. RAID d. DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. vi rtualization Feedback:a. All forms of cloud computing use virtualization. 37. A three legged perimeter is a form of ______________. a. VPN b. DMZ c. NAT d. ACL Grade:1 User Responses:b. DMZ Feedback:a. A three-legged perimeter is a firewall or server with three NICs: one pointed to the LAN, one to the Internet, and one to the DMZ. 38. Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by subnetting? a. It increases security by compartmentalizing the network. b. It is a more efficient use of IP address space. c. It reduces broadcast traffic and collisions. d. It eases administration of the network. Grade:1 User Responses:d. It eases administration of the network. Feedback:a. Subnetting provides a number of benefits but easing administration is not one of them. 39. Which of the following is the result of implementing VLANs? . Larger broadcast domains b. Smaller collision domains c. Smaller broadcast domains d. Larger collision domains Grade:1 User Responses:c. Smaller broadcast domains Feedback:a. VLANs break up the network into subnets and as such result in smaller broadcast domains. 40. Which of the following services helps conserve public IP addresses? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. SLIP Grade:0 User Responses:c. DNS Feedback:a. By allowing the use of private IP addresses inside each network and by representing those groups of private IP addresses with a single public IP address, public IP addresses are conserved by NAT. 41. Which of the following remote access protocols are used with VPNs? Choose all that apply. a. PPTP b. PPP c. L2TP d. SLIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. L2TP,d. SLIP Feedback:a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. /b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. 42. Which of the following security protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model? a. IPSec b. SSH c. SSL d. TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. One of the key features of IPSec is its operation at the network layer enabling it to protect any type of communication operating at the upper layers of the OSI model. 43. Which of the following are components of SNMP? Choose all that apply. a. NMS b. IPSec c. Agent d. CARP Grade:1 User Responses:b. IPSec,c. Agent Feedback:a. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. /b. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. 44. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for which of the following? a. PPP b. Telnet c. TLS d. SSH Grade:0 User Responses:d. SSH Feedback:a. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for Telnet, which transmits in clear text. 45. Which of the following protocols supersedes SSL? a. SSH b. TLS c. S/MIME d. EAP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SSH Feedback:a. TLS 1. 2, the latest version, is used when establishing an HTTPS connection and supersedes SSLv3. 46. The operation of which of the following protocols makes the SYN flood attack possible? a. IPX/SPX b. AppleTalk c. TCP/IP d. RIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. TCP/IP Feedback:a. TCP/IP uses a three-way handshake for its connection, and the SYN flood attack attempts to take advantage of the operation of this connection operation. 47. Which of the following provides secure web access? a. SFTP b. HTTP c. HTTPS d. SSH Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443 and is the standard for secure web access. 48. SCP is a secure copy protocol that uses the port of which other protocol for transfers? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SSL d. FTPS Grade:0 User Responses:d. FTPS Feedback:a. Secure copy (SCP) is another example of a protocol that uses another protocol (and its corresponding port). It uses SSH and ultimately uses port 22 to transfer data. 49. Which of the following protocols is abused when a ping flood occurs? a. SNMP b. IGMP c. ICMP d. EIGRP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SNMP Feedback:a. Ping floods use ICMP echo request packets aimed at the target. 50. Which of the following security mechanisms are built into IPv6? a. IPSec b. SSL c. HTTPS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. IPv6 has IPSec support built in. 51. What method is used by SSL to obtain and validate certificates? a. SPI b. PKI c. TLS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:b. PKI Feedback:a. SSL and TLS use a public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to obtain and validate certificates. 52. What port number does FTPS use to protect the transmission? a. 21 b. 88 c. 443 d. 445 Grade:0 User Responses:a. 21 Feedback:a. FTPS uses SSL or TLS over port 443 to make a secure connection. 53. Which of the following protocols uses port 22, normally used by SSH, to make a secure connection? a. FTPS b. SCP c. SFTP d. SSL Grade:0 User Responses:b. SCP Feedback:a. Secure FTP (SFTP) uses port 22, the port for SSH, which is why it is also sometimes called SSH FTP. 54. Which protocol uses ports 161 and 162? a. SMTP b. IMAP4 . SNMP d. IGMP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SMTP Feedback:a. SNMP is used to collect information about and make changes to devices on the network. It uses ports 161 and 162. 55. Which protocol uses the same port as HTTPS? a. SCP b. FTPS c. SFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:0 User Responses:c. SFTP Feedback:a. FTP secure (FTPS) uses port 443, which is also used by HTTPS. 56. Which protocol uses po rt 69? a. SCP b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. TFTP Feedback:a. TFTP uses port 69. 57. What port number is used by Telnet? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 23 Feedback:a. Port 23 is used by Telnet. 8. Which port does HTTP use? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:b. 443 Feedback:a. HTTP uses port 80. 59. Which port does SCP use to transfer data? a. 80 b. 22 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:c. 21 Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data. 60. Which protocol uses port 443? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:a. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443. 61. Which two protocols use port 22? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. SCP Grade:2 User Responses:c. SSH,d. SCP Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. b. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. 62. Which ports does the NetBIOS protocol uses? Choose all that apply. a. 138 b. 139 c. 137 d. 140 Grade:3 User Responses:a. 138,b. 139,c. 137 Feedback:a. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /b. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /c. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. 63. What protocol uses port 53? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. DNS Grade:0 User Responses:b. FTPS Feedback:a. DNS uses port 53. 64. Which port number does RDP use? a. 3389 b. 1723 c. 1701 d. 140 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 3389 Feedback:a. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop (RDP). 65. What protocol uses port 25? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. SSH d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:b. SMTP Feedback:a. SMTP uses port 25. 66. Which of the following statements is true regarding WPA and WPA2? (Choose all that apply. ) a. WPA uses 256-bit encryption. b. WPA2 uses 128-bit encryption. c. WPA uses TKIP. d. WPA2 uses AES. Grade:2 User Responses:c. WPA uses TKIP. ,d. WPA2 uses AES. Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. /b. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. 67. Which statement is NOT true with regard to WPA2? a. Uses AES encryption b. Meets requirements of 802. 11i c. Uses TKIP encryption d. Uses 256 bit encryption Grade:1 User Responses:c. Uses TKIP encryption Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP but WPA2 uses AES. 68. Which of the following is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. WEP d. CCMP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard. 69. What is the authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server called? . EAP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. WEP Grade:1 User Responses:a. EAP Feedback:a. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server. 70. Which of the following implementations of EAP requires certificates on the client and the server? a. EAP-FAST b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:d. EAP- TLS Feedback:a. EAP-TLS requires certificates on the client and the server. 71. Which of the following versions of EAP is Cisco proprietary? a. LEAP b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. LEAP Feedback:a. Lightweight EAP is a version that works only on Cisco devices unless the device is from a partner that participates in the Cisco Compatible Extensions program. 72. Why are MAC filters not effective in preventing access to the WLAN? a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in the beacon frames sent by the AP. b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. c. The administrative effort to maintain the MAC list is prohibitive. d. If the user changes his MAC address, the filter will disallow entry. Grade:1 User Responses:b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. Feedback:a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device and can be seen by those using wireless protocol analyzers. The MAC address can then be spoofed for entry. 73. Which of the following frame types contain the SSID? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Beacon frames b. Data frames c. Association frames d. Authentication frames Grade:3 User Responses:b. Data frames,c. Association frames,d. Authentication frames Feedback:a. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /b. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /c. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. 74. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of which of the following? a. EAP b. WPA c. WEP d. WPA2 Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of WEP. It was a temporary solution for use until the 802. 1x standard was completed. 75. Which of the following encryption protocols is used with WPA2? . TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. DES Grade:1 User Responses:b. CCMP Feedback:a. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is the encryption protocol used with WPA2. It addresses the vulnerabilities of TKIP and meets requirements of IEEE 802. 11i. 76. Which antenna types would be best for shaping the signal away from the front of the bu ilding for security purposes while still providing coverage in the other part of the building? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Yagi b. Omni c. Parabolic dish d. Semidirectional Grade:2 User Responses:a. Yagi,d. Semidirectional Feedback:a. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. /b. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. 77. How can you keep the existing radiation pattern of the antenna while reducing the coverage area? a. Increase the power of the transmitter. b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. c. Change the polarity of the antenna. d. Remove one of the attenuators from the line. Grade:1 User Responses:b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. Feedback:a. Reducing the power level maintains the radiation pattern while making the area of radiation smaller. 78. What organization created WPA? a. FCC b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. IEEE d. ISO Grade:1 User Responses:b. Wi-Fi Alliance Feedback:a. The Wi-Fi Alliance created WPA to address the weaknesses of WEP. 79. To which standard is WPA2 designed to adhere? a. 802. 16 b. 802. 11f c. 802. 11i d. 802. 11e Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 11i Feedback:a. WPA2 is designed to adhere to the 802. 11i security standard. 80. Which of the following is the weakest form of security? a. TKIP b. WPA c. WEP d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. WEP is the weakest form of security. It has been cracked and is not suitable for Enterprise WLANs. 81. A ______________ attack intercepts all data between a client and a server. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Man-in-the-middle Feedback:a. Man-in-the-middle is a type of active interception. If successful, all communications now go through the MITM attacking computer. 82. When a group of compromised systems attack a single target it is a called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:a. DDoS Feedback:a. A distributed denial-of-service attack occurs when a group of compromised systems launches a DDoS attack on a single target. 83. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. man-in-the middle c. replay d. smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. replay Feedback:a. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is a called a replay attack. 84. What attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:d. Smurf Feedback:a. A smurf attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork. The ICMP request is sent to a broadcast address. When all hosts receive the ICMP broadcast request, these host send ICMP replies to the source address, which has been set to the address of the target. 85. Changing your MAC address to that of another host is called ___________________. a. spear phishing b. spoofing c. pharming d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:b. spoofing Feedback:a. Spoofing is when an attacker tails the IP or MAC address of another computer. 86. Which of the following is more an aggravation than an attack? a. Spear phishing b. Spoofing c. Spam d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:c. Spam Feedback:a. Spam or unwanted email is more an aggravation than an attack. 87. Which of the following uses instant messaging as its vehicle? a. Spim b. Spoofing c. Phishing d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:a. Spim Feedback:a. Spam Over Instant Messaging (SPIM) uses IM to deliver the spam. 88. When VoIP phone calls are used in the pursuit of social engineering, it is called__________. a. spim b. poofing c. phishing d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:d. vishing Feedback:a. Vishing is phishing performed with VoIP calls, which are harder to trace than regular calls. 89. What type of attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. Xmas attack Feedback:a. Usually using Nmap, the Xmas attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports. 90. __________________ is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. a. DDoS b. Pharming c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Pharming Feedback:a. Host files and vulnerable DNS software can also be victims of pharming attacks. Pharming is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. Pharming can be prevented by carefully monitoring DNS configurations and host files. 91. ___________ is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:1 User Responses:d. Privilege escalation Feedback:a. Privilege escalation is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. 92. Which problem is the most difficult to contend with? a. Malicious insider threat b. Fraggle attack c. Distributed denial-of-service d. Whaling Grade:1 User Responses:a. Malicious insider threat Feedback:a. Because the attacker already is inside the network with company knowledge, a malicious insider threat is the most difficult to contend with. 93. What type of attack can DNS poisoning lead to? a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:0 User Responses:c. Spear phishing Feedback:a. Pharming attacks lead users from a legitimate website to a malicious twin. The easiest way to do this is to poison the DNS cache so that the DNS server sends them to the malicious site. 94. Strong input validation can help prevent ____________________. a. bluesnarfing b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:0 User Responses:c. session highjacking Feedback:a. SQL injection attacks user input in web forms that is not correctly filtered. This can be prevented with input validations. 95. LDAP injection is an attack on __________________servers. . SQL b. directory c. web d. email Grade:1 User Responses:b. directory Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a protocol used to maintain a directory of information such as user accounts or other types of objects. 96. XML injection can be prevented with __________________. a. IDS b. IPS c. input validation d. complex passwords Grade:0 User Responses:d. complex passwords Feedback:a. The best way to protect against this (and all code injection techniques for that matter) is to incorporate strong input validation. 97. The .. / attack is also known as ________________. a. irectory traversal b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:a. directory traversal Feedback:a. Directory traversal, or the .. / (dot dot slash) attack is a method to access unauthorized parent (or worse, root) directories. 98. _____________ is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. a. Directory traversal b. Command injection c. Command highjacking d. Code manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:b. Command injection Feedback:a. Command injection is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. 99. Buffer overflows operate against the _________ of the computer. a. NIC b. disk c. CPU d. memory Grade:1 User Responses:d. memory Feedback:a. A buffer overflow is when a process stores data outside of the memory that the developer intended. 100. What is the difference between an XSS and XSRF attack? a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. b. The XSFR attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSS attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. . The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the website, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the client. d. The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the client, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the website. Grade:1 User Responses:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas t he XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. Feedback:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website. The converse of this: the XSRF attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. In this attack (also known as a one-click attack), the user’s browser is compromised and transmits unauthorized commands to the website. 101. _______________ are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. a. Landing spots b. Backdoors c. Hotspots d. Code heels Grade:1 User Responses:b. Backdoors Feedback:a. Backdoors are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. 102. An XSS attack is also called a(n) __________________ attack. a. Zero day b. Command injection . Xmas d. Cross site scripting Grade:1 User Responses:d. Cross site scripting Feedback:a. XSS attacks, also called cross site scripting attacks, exploit the trust a user’s browser has in a website through code injection, often in webforms. 103. ______________can be used by spyware and can track people without their permission. a. MAC addresses b. Cookies c. IP addresses d. Attachments Grade:1 User Responses:b. Cookies Feedback:a. Cookies are text files placed on the client computer that store information about it, which could include your computer’s browsing habits and possibly user credentials. 104. Which of the following attachments is the riskiest to open? a.. exe b.. pdf c.. doc d.. txt Grade:1 User Responses:a.. exe Feedback:a. A . exe or executable file is one that contains a program that will do something, perhaps malicious to the computer. 105. Stolen cookies can be used to launch a(n) ____________________. a. XSS attack b. SQL injection c. session highjack d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:c. session highjack Feedback:a. Session cookies authenticate you to a server and can be used to highjack your session. 106. Header manipulation alters information in ______________ headers. a. LDAP b. file c. HTTP . SQL Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTP Feedback:a. Header manipulation alters information in HTTP headers and falsifies access. 107. An ActiveX control is an example of a(n) _________________. a. cookie b. add-on c. cipher d. virus Grade:1 User Responses:b. add-on Feedback:a. You can enable and disable add-on programs such as ActiveX controls in the Programs tab by clicking the Manage add-ons button in Internet Explorer. 108. When an attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general, it is called a __________. a. P2P attack b. zero day attack c. whaling attack d. DDoS attack Grade:1 User Responses:b. zero day attack Feedback:a. A zero day attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general. 109. __________________is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. DMS Grade:1 User Responses:a. DLP Feedback:a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. It does this through content inspection and is designed to prevent unauthorized use of data as well as prevent the leakage of data outside the computer (or network) that it resides. 10. Which form of DLP is typically installed in data centers or server rooms? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:c. Storage DLP Feedback:a. Storage DLP systems are typically installed in data centers or server rooms as software that inspect data at rest. 111. Which of the following is an example of d rive encryption? a. AppLocker b. BitLocker c. Windows defender d. Trusted Platform Module Grade:1 User Responses:b. BitLocker Feedback:a. To encrypt an entire hard disk, you need some kind of full disk encryption software. Several are currently available on the market; one developed by Microsoft is called BitLocker. 112. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is ____________ than software encryption. a. more difficult to crack b. easier to use than software encryption c. faster than software encryption d. can be used to calculate data other than encryption keys Grade:1 User Responses:c. faster than software encryption Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors. This means that they are used for encryption during secure login/authentication processes, during digital signings of data, and for payment security systems. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is faster than software encryption. 113. A _________________ is a chip residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:d. TPM Feedback:a. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is one residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. 114. Which of the following is NOT required to encrypt the entire disk in Windows? Choose all that apply. a. TPM chip or USB key b. A hard drive with two volumes c. HSM Module d. Cryptoprocessor Grade:2 User Responses:c. HSM Module,d. Cryptoprocessor Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. /b. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. 115. Probably the most important security concern with cloud computing is _______________. . less secure connections b. loss of physical control of data c. weak authentication d. bug exploitation Grade:1 User Responses:b. loss of physical control of data Feedback:a. Probably the most important security control concern is the physical control of data that is lost when an organization makes use of cloud computing. 116. Which of the following is NOT a solution to security issues surroundi ng cloud computing? a. Complex passwords b. Strong authentication methods c. Standardization of programming d. Multiple firewalls Grade:1 User Responses:d. Multiple firewalls Feedback:a. Solutions to these security issues include complex passwords, strong authentication methods, encryption, and standardization of programming. 117. Which form of DLP is typically installed on individual computers? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:a. Endpoint DLP Feedback:a. Endpoint DLP systems run on an individual computer and are usually software-based. They monitor data in use such as email communications and can control what information flows between various users. 118. Where could you disable the use of removable media on a computer? a. Device manager . BIOS c. Control panel d. Programs and features Grade:1 User Responses:b. BIOS Feedback:a. BIOS settings can be used to reduce the risk of infiltration including disabling removable media including the floppy drives and eSATA and USB ports. 119. What are two shortcomings of using BitLocker drive encryption? a. Weak encryption b. Expensive c. Performance suffers d. Shorter driv e life Grade:2 User Responses:c. Performance suffers,d. Shorter drive life Feedback:a. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. /b. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. 120. Which form of DLP is typically installed on the perimeter of the network? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion. 121. Software as a service (SaaS) is a type of _____________ computing. a. HSM b. cloud c. role-based d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:b. cloud Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most commonly used and recognized example of cloud computing. SaaS is when users access applications over the Internet that are provided by a third party. 122. Which form of DLP inspects ONLY data in motion? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion. 123. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud services? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Examples of cloud services include Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS). 124. When an electronic control suffers an error, reports the error, and shuts down, it is called_____________. a. Failopen b. Failsafe c. Failclose d. Failshut Grade:1 User Responses:b. Failsafe Feedback:a. When the control fails and shuts down, it is a failsafe. When it fails and leaves a vulnerable system, it is a failopen. 125. What should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected? a. Firewall logs b. Server logs c. Workstation logs d. Security patches Grade:1 User Responses:a. Firewall logs Feedback:a. Logging is also important when it comes to a firewall. Firewall logs should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected. You should know how to access the logs and how to read them. 126. Which log on a Windows server is where you could learn if Joe logged in today? a. Applications b. System c. Security d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:c. Security Feedback:a. The security log contains entries about logins and access to resources both successful and unsuccessful. 127. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical security? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:b. Security logs Feedback:a. Security logs track activities on the network which is logical not physical security. 128. Which of the following is NOT a type of door lock? a. Cipher b. Keyed c. Cardkey d. Mantrap Grade:1 User Responses:d. Mantrap Feedback:a. A mantrap is a two door system designed to prevent tailgating. 129. Which of the following is NOT an example of operating system hardening? a. Disabling unnecessary services b. Removing the NIC c. Protecting management interfaces d. Password protection Grade:1 User Responses:b. Removing the NIC Feedback:a. Hardening the system should not reduce its functionality, and removing the NIC would do that. 130. Which of the following standards is often referred to as port-based security? a. 802. 1x b. 802. 11 c. 802. 11n d. 802. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 802. 1x Feedback:a. 802. 1x enforces perimeter security by keeping the port of the station closed until authentication is complete. 131. In which type of monitoring is network traffic analyzed for predetermined attack patterns? a. Signature-based monitoring b. Anomaly-based monitoring c. Behavior-based monitoring d. Reactive-based monitoring Grade:1 User Responses:a. Signature-based monitoring Feedback:a. Network traffic is analyzed for predetermined attack patterns. These attack patterns are known as signatures. 132. A(n) __________________ uses baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems. a. NAT b. SPA c. SLA d. PSK Grade:1 User Responses:b. SPA Feedback:a. The security posture can be defined as the risk level to which a system, or other technology element, is exposed. Security Posture Assessments (SPA) use baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems. 133. Which of the following indicate a problem currently occurring? . Trends b. Baselines c. Alarms d. Averts Grade:1 User Responses:c. Alarms Feedback:a. Although alerts indicate an issue that MAY need attention, alarms indicate a problem currently occurring. 134. Which of the following are detection controls? (Choose all that apply. ) a. IDS b. IPS c. Video cameras d. Security guard Grade:2 User Responses:a. IDS,c. Video camera s Feedback:a. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. /b. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. 35. Which of the following is designed to prevent tailgating? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:a. Mantraps Feedback:a. Mantraps use double doors to prevent tailgating. 136. Which of the following is a proximity reader? a. a security card that transmits the location of the holder b. a device that tracks how close an individual is c. a security card reader that can read the card from a distance d. a card reader that locks the door when the holder is a certain distance from the door Grade:1 User Responses:c. security card reader that can read the card from a distance Feedback:a. These cards use radio waves to transmit to the reader. 137. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you _____________ the systems. a. brace b. harden c. virtualize d. hardline Grade:1 User Responses:b. harden Feedback:a. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you harden the system. 138. Installing service packs is a part of the ___________ process. a. baselining b. hardening c. scaling . security templating Grade:1 User Responses:b. hardening Feedback:a. Hardening the OS is accomplished through the use of service packs, patch management, hotfixes, group policies, security templates, and configuration baselines. 139. ______________ can be described as unauthorized WAPs that inadvertently enable access to secure networks. a. Rogue access points b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Phisher Grade:1 User Responses:a. Rogue access points Feedback:a. Rogue access points can be described as unauthorized wireless access points/routers that enable access to secure networks. They differ from an Evil twin in that an Evil twin is strategically placed for the purpose of accessing the network or performing a high jacking attack, whereas rogue access points generally may be placed by employees for their convenience. 140. Which wireless attacks include the introduction of radio interference? a. Rogue Access Point b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:b. Evil twin Feedback:a. The evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the evil twin AP. 141. When executing the Evil twin attack, what value must match on the Evil twin and the legitimate AP? . IP address b. SSID c. MAC address d. Admin password Grade:1 User Responses:b. SSID Feedback:a. The Evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the Evil twin AP. The stations will not roam to the Evil twin unless the SSID is the same as the legitimate AP. 142. ________________ is when a person attempts to access a wireless network, usually while driving in a vehicle. a. War chalking b. Radiophishing c. War driving d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:c. War driving Feedback:a. War driving is when a person attempts to access a wireless

Developing an Evaluation Plan Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words - 1

Developing an Evaluation Plan - Assignment Example The aim of the program evaluation is to help the government determine components and project aspects that are working and why. It also aims at identifying project aspects that are not doing well and why. The results of the evaluation will enable project managers make modifications and mid-course corrections, if necessary, to assist the CAUTI prevention project make modifications over its second phase. The evaluation examines the adaptability and flexibility of the project in the fight against the spread of CAUTI in nursing settings. Project managers will use the outcome of this evaluation to expand the existing program so as to ensure that the program handles the new challenges of CAUTI (Dunn, Kathuria & Klotman, 2013). Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infections (CAUTI) is harmful, therefore demanding procedural approaches for its elimination. Measurement is key in providing useful data that is useful in coming up with methods of curing and preventing infections among individuals. The measurement aspect focuses on process, culture, and outcome measures. The three concepts all aim at providing the relevant data for the elimination of CAUTI. Therefore, measurement aims at determining the efficiency of each stage of the overall process of the elimination of CAUTI. Data collection is a key stage and helps in providing views to the team, thus promoting efficiency and sustainability of the process. Collection of data aims at ensuring that it alters the culture and reduces the CAUTI rates among individuals. The process is, therefore, crucial for the improvement of the process through offering criticism to the process and ensuring that it is efficient in achieving the set objectives (Wright, 2013). The operation Stop CAUTI incorporates (HSOPS) Hospital Survey on Patient Safety Culture to help follow on changes in the safety of the patient over a given period. It also helps appraise the

The Importance of the Apollo 11 Lunar Landing and How It Affected Research Paper

The Importance of the Apollo 11 Lunar Landing and How It Affected America's Relationship with Russia - Research Paper Example The effects of the above mission on America’s relationship with Russia are reviewed in this paper; the explanation of the value of the specific mission for USA and for the global community has been considered as necessary in order to understand the differentiation of the relationship between USA and Russia under the influence of the Apollo 11 Lunar Landing. The paper aims to prove that the Apollo 11 Lunar Landing has been a unique event, highly affecting the relationship between USA and Russia which are considered as major competitors in the Aerospace industry. The Apollo missions are considered as the most important projects in the American Aerospace industry. Of particular importance is the first of these missions, the Apollo 11 Lunar landing that tool place in the 20th of July 1969. During that day ’Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin, the two members of the crew, had the chance to walk for about half of a mile on foot’.1 It was the first time in human history that such trip has been achieved. Normally, the above achievement should have caused the interest of scientists and the public worldwide. Still, the value of the Apollo 11 Lunar Landing has been doubted.2 One of the key reasons has been the project’s cost. ... still, due to its cost the mission did not have the support expected, if considering its value for science, not just for USA but for the international community. The importance of the Apollo 11 Lunar landing can be understood if referring to the mission’s various aspects. The Apollo 11 mission has been a project in which critical programs of Aerospace have been tested. Reference can be made, for example, to ‘the Centaur Program, a program instrumental in the success of the above mission’.4 In ‘the 40th anniversary of Apollo mission’, engineers working in NASA’s projects had the chance to highlight the value of the Centaur program, which was developed during the Apollo 11 mission.5 During the above anniversary, the value of the Apollo 11 for the improvement of the technology involved in the Aerospace industry was highlighted; reference has been made, for example, to the robotic technology6 but also to the Space Shuttle engine,7 which had a criti cal role in the success of the Apollo 11 mission. Moreover, by completing the Apollo 11 mission successfully, USA could set more targets in regards to the Aerospace industry. The exploration of other planets and the development of other projects related to the space have been made feasible in the context of the Apollo 11 Lunar landing. This fact is reflected in the following event: in the 20th anniversary of the Apollo 11 Lunar landing, the US president, George Bush announced the intention of the US Government to support the expansion of projects related to the Aerospace industry.8 The expansion would include a series of initiatives, such as ‘a mission to Mars and a permanent return to the Moon’.9 The above announcements were made in order to enhance the popularity of NASA’s projects. Indeed, in the period

Toyota Material Handling Australia Case Study Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 3250 words

Toyota Material Handling Australia - Case Study Example Objective assessment techniques significantly improve a company's ability to make correct decisions and manage the risks involved. A case study on Toyota Material Handling Australia (TMHA) is the organisation in focus that implemented the mentioned best practice in recruitment, development and promotion. The company has benefited much from objective assessment approach. It has reduced recruitment time, reduced selection cost, cut the hire cycle time, and recruited higher quality staff. The level of employee satisfaction has improved and the cultural differences has been resolved; the credit goes to the systematic and structured integration strategy that the company has planned and effectively implemented. Toyota Material Handling Australia (TMHA) is a major supplier of the widest range of forklifts and electric warehouse products in the region. The Toyota brand has gained market leadership since 1987. In 2005, TMHA was formed from the integration of BT Industries which was acquired in 2000. Today, the Australian operations represent approximately $300 million in turnover with over 690 staff across the country. The integration of BT Industries became a great challenge for the company. The merging of the sales team of both Toyota and BT developed into an obstacle for the organisation due to the difference in products and cultures of the two companies. BT industries sold battery-electric warehouse equipments while Toyota was in the business of engine powered trucks. The sales methodologies of both companies were different. BT was a new player to the market in Australia while Toyota has been a key player for over 40 years. The sales culture of Toyota has been tried and tested. It has withstood obstacles in order to consistently achieve market leadership. It is the core competence of Toyota which the management aimed at integrating in the new organisation. In order to address the issue on culture clash and improve the performance of the newly merged sales teams, TMHA employed the services of an external training and development provider, strategically branded as Objective Assessment Pty Ltd. The service provider performed diagnostic analysis on the capability and growth potential of the sales management. They then assisted in the development of the stability of the sale teams. TMHA together with Objective Assessment implemented sales recruitment and assessment strategies. As a result of the new sales recruitment and assessment process, TMHA has discovered great assets from within the company and come across new yet stronger sales recruits and talents. Consequently, the new process benefited the company through saving time in selection and providing stability in their sale teams. Furthermore, TMHA has overcome their cultural dilemmas and improved the team's performance. Discussion The fundamental role of strategic human resource management is about matching human resources to the strategic and operational needs of the organisation and ensuring the full utilisation of these resources (Armstrong, 2006, p. 359). It is concerned with obtaining and keeping the number and quality of staff required as well as selecting and promoting people who fit the culture and the strategic requirements of the organisation. (Gunnigle & Moore, 1994, p. 65) Human resource strategy has come to play a vital role in enhancing an organisation's competitive advantage. Companies realise the importance of

The Case For And Against Global Governance Politics Essay

The Case For And Against Global Governance Politics Essay The wish to rule the world has always been a part of the human experience throughout recorded history. Broadly speaking, global governance is an international and political system of ruling at all levels or human activity. In other words, this type of governance can be associated with multilevel governance in the sense that governance does not only take place at the national and the international echelon but also at the local, regional as well as subnational levels. Globalisation is a term that has been spoken about worldwide since 1990 and it has given a rise to intense arguments about the supply of losses and gains resulting from it. From a political point of view, many authors have also tried to define the subject matter which will be discussed throughout this essay. This essay examines not only the pessimistic and optimistic sides of global governance but will also explain the concept, how it works together or in cooperation with the United Nations. Meaning, this piece of work wi ll also explain a bit about the UNs contribution towards global governance by giving supportive examples in order to back up the argument. It will also analyse what authors think about global governance and how they define it. It will then suggest a model for enhancing global governance within the conclusion. As explained within the introduction, global governance could also be considered as a political interaction of transnational actors aimed at solving issues that have an effect on more than one state or area in case there is no authority of imposing compliance. Global governance makes rules intended for the worldwide scale. However, the world governance model only takes as fact the emergence and intensification of interdependence conditions between states and not a monopoly of the legal practice of force. To be more specific, it is a model of international relations that does not presume the alteration of the material constitutions of the international relations from anarchy to hierarchy. Nevertheless, it represents a noticeable change of the social structures in which international relations are taking place. Fundamentally, this transformation is characterized by the rising significance of norms and set of laws which are globally agreed (Volker R and Bernhard z 2006). Governance in t his particular case designates official political establishments that seek to organize and control co-dependent social relations and that also have the capacity to implement decisions. In fact, many authors have defined the concerned topic according to their ideology. Global governance is basically the sum effort of managing global affair. The commission of Global Governance which was established in 1995 provided the following definition: Global governance is the sum of many ways individuals and institutions public and private manage their common affairs. It is a progressing process through which conflicting or diverse interests may be accommodated and co-operate actions may be taken. It includes formal institutions and regimes empowered to enforce conformity, as well as informal arrangements that people and institutions either have agreed to or perceive to be in their interest. At the global level, governance has been viewed primarily as intergovernmental relationships, but must now be understood as also involving non-governmental organisations (NGOS), citizens movements, multinational corporations and the global capital market. Global government aims at activities that cross borders and are normally outside the control of individual governments. Commerce and world trade are standard case in points. International crime, drug smuggling, cross-border environmental problems, the internet, tourism, migration of people and the spread of diseases are amongst the cases that covers global governance. The system available for the management of a particular set of issues internationally is referred to as international regimes. If global governance is the sum of ways that individuals and institutions manage their common affairs across the world, then international regimes are the tool kits for this activity. (Krasner, 1983:2). Global governance includes peoples participation and empowerment with respect to public policies, choices and offices. Global governance can encompass the workings of the world economic market which can be undertaken on the basis of implicit understanding, private agreements and with little input from international organisations. The internet functions world-wide without recourse to any controlling international organisations and indeed often beyond governmental control. It also includes the institutions in which these principles and values find on-going expression. It cannot be argued that Global governance can be good, bad or indifferent refers to active collective arrangements to solve problems. Adjusting our definition, global governance is the sum of laws, norms, policies and institutions that define, constitute and mediate relations among citizens, society, markets and the state within the international field (reference). Conventionally, governance has been linked with leading, governing, or with political power, institutions, and, eventually, control and management of organisations. In the sense, governance signifies formal political establishments that aim to coordinate and control interdependent social relations and possess the capacity to enforce decisions. In rec ent years, however, authors such as James Roseneau have used governance refering to the regulation of interdependent relations in the nonexistence of overarching political authority; such as in the international system. Meaning, even in the absence of an overarching central authority, existing collective arrangements bring more predictability, stability and order to transboundary problems than we might expect. These may be perceptible but quite informal(e.g. practices or guidelines).But they may also be far more formal, taking the shape of rules (laws, norms, codes of behaviour) as well as constituted institutions and practices intended to manage collective affairs by a mixture of actors. Through such methods and agreements, collective interests are articulated, rights and obligations are established and differences are mediated (Thomas G Weiss and R Thakur,2001). International organisations are likely to remain the fundamental pillar of global governance since as being a model of g lobal governance they might not only portray more satisfactorily the reality of todays international relations but also the reality of international relations in the predictable future.(Volker et all, 2006). The statements above have showed how to some extent, a world can be organised without a central overarching authority (global governance). As mentioned above, global governance could have both positive and negative outcomes which will be discussed within the following paragraphs. On one hand, I believe that there is no government for the world. Yet on any given day, mail is distributed across frontiers, people travel from one country to another via variety of transportation means; goods and services are shipped across lands, sea ,air and a whole range of other cross-border activities takes place in rational expectation of safety and security for the people, firms and governments concerned. Most observers believe that there is no foundation for an over-optimistic evaluation of th e impact of globalisation. As a matter of fact, we notice that there is an ever-widening gap between rich and poor people in developing and industrialises countries alike instead of a stable increase and a fair distribution of wealth (UNDP 1999). Additionally, disruptions and threats are rare; indeed in many instances less frequent in the international domain than in many sovereign countries that should have effective and functioning governments. That is to say, international transactions are typically if not to say naturally characterized by order, stability and predictability. This simply means that with or without global governance, they are generally and normally characterised by steadiness and preventability. This immediately raises a puzzle and shows that to some extent the world could be governed even in the absence of a world or global government to produce codes of conduct, norms and regulatory surveillance as well as compliance instruments. In other words, there could be g overnance without a central government. Some allocated values are quasi-authoritative for the world and are accepted as such without a government to rule the world. To back up what has been explained above, I will give an example of what has happened up till now in the world. Asia also underwent a major financial crisis in 1997-1998. Nowadays, the impressive subprime housing loans, banking and financial crisis that began in the US in September-October 2008 is likely continue for several years. That simply means it is also the case that normal periods of calm, stability, order and predictability are interspersed with periodic bouts of market volatility, disorder and crisis. Government may be imperfect, but markets too are defective. Both the Asian crisis and the US market collapse in 2008 express the necessity for transparent, sufficient, effective regulatory, surveillance instruments and institutions. To be more specific, these are crisis of governance in terms of playing proper ro le of governments and market institutions as well as the appropriate balance in the relationships between them. Furthermore, these are also crisis of domestic governance. The causes of the crisis lie in the inadequate domestic governance and the solution entails responses from both domestic governments and the markets. (Weiss and Thomas George, 2010).Examples above show how the role of global governance institutions is restricted to containing the contagion. For this case, I believe that global governance institutions to some extent are limited in its actions and sometimes do not act beyond its capacity. To be more assertive, Global governance can play a facilitative and constraining role, but it rarely plays a determinant and predominant one. The authority and ability for the latter is vested almost exclusively in domestic public authorities. In fact, the expectations are greater for global governance on the peace and security side, yet here too they may be false or overstated. As financial crisis periodically occurs, armed conflict occasionally breaks out even in the midst of general peace and order. As stated by Weiss and Thomas, 2010, not all emergencies and crisis are human-made. The worldwide response to the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami which killed about 280,000 people provides us with global governance in microcosm, an illustration of how an enormous transborder problem is addressed in a decentralised world. Although it is trite to remark that there is no world government to take charge of international responses, it is less commonly understood that there was such a remarkable assistance which was effectively provided to tsunami victims without a central authority. Within the following paragraph, I will give another example showing how global governance institutions could be unhelpful sometimes. In December 2004, there was an earthquake that registered a magnitude of 9.0 on the Richter scale. This took place in the Island of Sumatra. Consequently, the ear thquake and the resulting Tsunami spread mind-boggling destruction across the Indian Ocean. What is more, 12 countries were affected some as far away as the Horn of Africa. The globalizing effect of innovations in transportation and communication were in evidence. The revolution in information technology made global communications instantaneous and also made it possible to mobilize humanitarian assistance for rescue, relief, and the reconstruction in real time. This began to appear on international television news programs and on internet. It has also allowed the scope of the tragedy to become clear. A week after the disaster, experts estimated that as many people would die of disease as were killed by the waved themselves. In fact, help was so valuable that number was close to zero. As a matter of fact, even though the UN can physically deploy humanitarian assistance to help people affected by such emergencies anywhere in the world, it is not puzzling to affirm that millions of liv es were saved and rebuilding was started without a central authority (global governance). Moreover, despite the fact that IOs help states to cooperate in the pursuit of shared goals and manage competition and rivalry in order to avoid conflict and violence, countless threats whether natural or unnatural face the human species. For example genocide, weapons of mass destruction, climates change, and financial instabilities. Essentially, the evolution of intergovernmental institutions to facilitate robust international responses lags well behind the emergence of collective problems with transborder, especially global dimensions. This could also be stated as one of the problà ©matiques (negative side) of global governance in our time. Similarly, another pessimistic side of global governance is in terms of security. This consists of the disconnect between the distribution of authority within existing intergovernmental institutions and the distribution of military power internationally. According to Rodern Wilkinson: Economic governance is the most advanced and comprehensive dimension of emerging global governance. Yet as in the security sector, there is a growing gap between distribution of authority within existing international institutions and the international distribution of economic power. Regardless of the fact that Global Governance has an unfinished journey with the UN, it is important to acknowledge that it also has limits in terms of attaining their governance goals and thus the reduction of their legitimacy, mainly originates from four governance gaps which are jurisdictional, operational, incentive and participatory. As a result these gaps considerably impair the capacity of international governance systems such as global governance in this case so as not to deal efficiently with urgent problems. (Volker Rittberg, 2001). This also impedes some actors opportunities to participate in the public policy-making. In other words, the attainment of governance goals within the global governance as a model of international governance system has gradually become more complex. This is particularly true for trans- sovereign problems. This lack of effectiveness has been referred to as the governance systems reduced output legitimacy(Zurn 2002, 184,Scharpf 1998a). According to Volker Rittberg, global governance has to be regarded rather as a patchwork of heterogeneous elements deriving from governance under the hegemonic umbrella (e.g. in the security communities) as well as governance without world governance appears to be the most desirable and realistic of realizable governance models. The extent to which the United Nations can help promote international world peace and security is a matter of debate. Evidence indicates that the world organisation still faces many great challenges. Most importantly, insecurity is growing especially in Non-western or developing countries. For the time being, the UN possesses only a limited institutional and logistical capacity to undertake major peace operations around the world. Accordingly, global governance is not a single world order, not a top down, hierarchical structure of authority. It is the collection of governance, related activities, rules and mechanisms, formal and informal existing at a variety of levels in the world today. For purposes of global government, one major limitation of public international law is that it applies only to states except for war crimes and crimes against humanity. At present, except within the EU, multilateral agreements cannot be used directly to bind individuals, multinational corporations, non-governmental organisations, paramilitary forces, terrorists or international criminals. However, they can establish norms that states are expected to observe and where possible enforce against these non-state actors. Another issue in the eyes of many is the deficiency of international enforcement mechanisms and the role of self-interest in shaping states decisions about whether or not to accept treaties and other forms of international rules. International law has left states to use self-help means to secure fulfilment. In reality, The UN charter and the E.U treaties for example, provide enforcement mechanisms yet the threat of sanctions is not a key motivator for compliance with international rules (M Karns and K Mingst, 2004). The complexity of global governance is a function not only of many pieces, but also of many actors that are frequently linked in transnational and trans-governmental networks. Such networks have become increasingly dense since the 1970.Amongst them there are the states, IGOs, NGOs, experts, multinational corporations (MNCS) and global policy networksà ¢Ã¢â€š ¬Ã‚ ¦ However, it is important to acknowledge the fact that the theory and practice of global governance seeks to provide international government-like services in the absence of a world government and helping to build effective regional organisations and security communities, the UN has a better chance of achieving its goals for global governance. The positive side of global governance will now be discussed within the following paragraphs. On the other hand, Global governance is needed in order to stimulate improvement, maintain social stability and to decrease inequality. Meaning, a stronger international cooperation is important so as to make this work in tandem (effectively) with open market abroad. I believe that since more and more problems are global, solutions should also be global to make more sense. That is to say effective cooperation among governments, big business and NGOs is necessary. It is evident that over the past years climate change has been the lightning-road issue for global governance. Therefore it makes sense for global common problems to require a global cooperative solution. The United Nations once dealt only with governments. By now we know that peace and prosperity cannot be achieved without partnerships involving governments, international organisations, the business community and civil society (un.org). In fact, we depend on each other in todays world. This simply means a nation cannot surv ive efficiently on its own and will surely need a hand from the outside world. It can be seen that international organisations (IGOS) and INGOS play important roles and undertake particular functions in the world market-place. Therefore it is difficult to imagine the contemporary world without them since they assist the process of the functioning of the international political systems such as global governance. The absence of inactivity of global governance could result in the fact that sovereign states would have to contact one another by the transnational means of diplomacy, at most conference diplomacy. National groupings and individuals might well have contact with those having common interests in other parts of the world but this relationship would not be formalized into a continuous structure with members from several states. Forums for discussion and exchange would be less frequent and would be one-off occasions with no certainty of any continuity. Governments and groupings t rying to further their own ends internationally would have fewer instruments. The existence of Global governance, however strong or weak and in whatever form, also allows for action by global civil society. Civil society in the domestic context refers to the social action not organized by governments and its agents but non-governmental movements, associations and organizations. (Clive A, 2001). The U.N system plays a central role in global governance in terms of implementing or adjusting proposals. It seems that the global-governance model is most compatible with our finding that international organisations are able to encourage and stabilize international cooperation among sovereign states To gain a foothold in the future, global governance will have to overcome the gaps mentioned above, which we have not explained in detail throughout this essay. However, there is no general consensus about how these gaps can and should be narrowed or even closed although they curtail the effectiveness and legitimacy of 20th century international governance systems. In order to fulfil effectively the tasks of governance, it is essential to ensure a well-balanced relationship within the triad of actors and by making it possible for these actors to participate in governance processes adequately and equitably.

The Effects of Specific Diet in Relation to Aging Essay -- Nutrition

Introduction Every day people make decisions that impact their lives, varying from minuscule to dynamic effects. It is widely accepted that eating a nutritious diet may prevent, delay, or lessen certain age-related diseases. Many individuals choose to partake in a vegetarian lifestyle in hopes that it would lead to a more healthful and longer life. While a vegetarian lifestyle has proven to be generally safe and beneficial for human health, the question I propose is what the difference, if any, is between a vegetarian and omnivorous lifestyle over the adult human lifespan in relation to aging and body function? The purpose of this paper is to examine the potential effects, positive, negative, and neutral, that diet, namely vegetarian based vs. omnivore based, has on aging throughout the adult lifespan. Background To introduce the topic, it is important to know that for the purpose of this paper, the term vegetarian will encompass all types of vegetarianism, including, but not limited to, pescatarianism (abstaining from all beef, pork, poultry, and foul, but still consuming all dairy products, eggs, fish, and sea food) , the most common lacto-ovo-vegetarian (abstaining from eating the meat of all and any animals, including fish and sea food, but still consuming dairy [lacto] products and eggs [ovo]), a stricter vegetarianism, known as vegan (abstaining from all meats, fish, sea food, eggs, dairy, animal products, and in most strict cases white sugar because of the way it is processed), and the strictest form, raw vegan( abstaining from all that a vegan does, and also abstaining from all cooked and â€Å"un-natural† foods). It is also to be noted, that while many choose a vegetarian lifestyle for suspected health benefits, many also ... ...ction to food and society. Belmont, California: Thomson/Wadsworth. pp. 282, 283. ISBN 0-534-52582-2. "Protein in diet". United States National Library of Medicine, National Institutes of Health. 2009. http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/ency/article/002467.htm. Davey GK, Spencer EA, Appleby PN, Allen NE, Knox KH, Key TJ (2003). "EPIC-Oxford: lifestyle characteristics and nutrient intakes in a cohort of 33 883 meat-eaters and 31 546 non meat-eaters in the UK". Public Health Nutrition 6 (3): 259–69. doi:10.1079/PHN2002430. PMID 12740075. Standing Committee on the Scientific Evaluation of Dietary Reference Intakes, Food and Nutrition Board, Institute of Medicine (1997). Dietary Reference Intakes for Calcium, Phosphorus, Magnesium, Vitamin D and fluoride. Washington DC: The National Academies Press. ISBN 0309064031. http://www.nap.edu/catalog.php?record_id=5776.

Softdrinks: Bad Influence for Our Bones, Teeth, and Body Weight

Coca-Cola’s advertisements typically radiate happiness and refreshment. In one of its latest ads, it shows its product as a factory of happiness. Soda advertisements can be very effective in psychologically conditioning people to think that softdrinks are equal to a happy and beautiful life. It sends a message that when people drink soda, they are drinking their way to a happier life. In reality, softdrinks wreak havoc to people’s health and lives. Sodas, as several scientific studies prove, are not good for us at all.Softdrinks may seem like a refreshing way to ease a hot day, but their short-term benefits cannot outweigh their long-term destructive effects. People should not drink softdrinks anymore, because of its bad influence on our bones, teeth, and body weight. Softdrinks drill cavities into our teeth. Poonam Jain, director of community dentistry at Southern Illinois University School of Dental Medicine says: â€Å"Soda eats up and dissolves the tooth enamelâ₠¬  (Kanigel). Jain examined several sodas by measuring their pH level, which is an indication of acidity. Water has pH of 7; sugar-sweetened sodas range at 2.5; while diet sodas tally at 3. 2 (Kanigel). Jain stresses that soda’s acidity is even worse for our teeth than solid sugar in candy, because soda corrodes our teeth enamel, which hastens the tooth decay process by making it easier for bacteria to penetrate our teeth (Kanigel). A number of studies, including a University of Michigan investigation of dental checkup data from the Third National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, back up that adults who imbibe â€Å"three or more sodas a day have up to 62% more decayed, missing, and filled teeth than those who drink less† (Kanigel).Softdrinks are good for sipping, and at times, it seems better to let the taste simmer in our mouth. People do not know that sipping soda actually makes it harder for their saliva to go back to neutral levels (Kanigel). Jain emphasi zes that â€Å"This is particularly an issue for people who drink several sodas a day, because they never give their saliva a chance to neutralize† (Kanigel). Clearly, sodas destroy our chances for that beaming close-up smile. Softdrinks eat away our bones too. Several studies showed that softdrinks have been correlated to lower bone density.In the 1950s, children downed 3 cups of milk for every 1 cup of sugary drinks; now, it has been reversed, because children drink 3 cups of sweetened drinks for every cup of milk (Kanigel). A number of experts connect softdrinks with osteoporosis, because people drink milk less, when they drink more softdrinks (Kanigel). The study by Jean Mayer of the USDA Human Nutrition Research Center, on the other hand, does not find a connection between drinking softdrinks and drinking milk, although their study also shows that cola consumption decreases bone density for older women (Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter 1).Girls are also being n egatively affected by sodas. In a study of 460 adolescent students in 2000, the Harvard School of Public Health discovered that â€Å"girls who drank carbonated soft drinks were three times as likely to break their arms and legs as those who consumed other drinks† (Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter 1). The study underscores that dark drinks seem to be more health-aversive than fruit-flavored drinks, because the study show that girls who imbibed colas were five times more prone to breaking their arms and legs in their adolescent years than girls who stopped drinking soda(Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter 1).Grace Wyshak, PhD, a biostatistician and the study's primary researcher, suggests that something in colas hold back the body's capability to use calcium (Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter 1). She is alarmed that this will make girls more susceptible to fractures and bone problems in later life (Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter 1). Indeed , sipping soda can be similar to chipping our bones away. Drinking sodas add up to our waistline. Olsen and Heitmann and Vartanian et al. review literature on the relationship between obesity and softdrinks. Majority of the studies prove that drinking sodas can be linked to obesity.Pereira also examines the evidence that links obesity and softdrinks. She concludes that several studies illustrate that there is a relationship between drinking sweet drinks like soda and higher body mass index. Marr also mentions studies that blame softdrinks for many children being obese or overweight. David S. Ludwig, MD, PhD, director of the obesity program at Children's Hospital Boston agrees with Marr and states: â€Å"In my estimation, sugary beverages are one of the two leading environmental causes of obesity, perhaps second only to TV viewing in the magnitude of its effect† (Kanigel).In 2001, he and his peers at the Harvard School of Public Health provided strong evidence that linked obes ity and softdrinks (Kanigel). They followed 548 teens for 19 months and discovered that teenagers who drank more sodas were more overweight than those who did not (Kanigel). Another study suggests that fructose in softdrinks can stimulate appetite, which makes it easier for people to get fatter (Kanigel). Softdrinks are fatteners. On the other hand, people who say that softdrinks is a cheap and easy way to feel refreshed want to defend their sodas.The reaction to this is that people can also drink cold water and feel refreshed. They can even drink lemon juice and dash it with honey, and they get less calories and fructose. Soda producers also assert that soda provides funding for many education programs. Yes, soda does that, but how about the bad influence of softdrinks? Childhood obesity cannot ethically fund education. Softdrinks are bad influence in many ways; they are bad for our bones, teeth, and weight. They increase risks for a number of health problems. They are not what the y want to be- to bring happiness to people.How can people be in high spirits, when they have bone problems, tooth decay, diabetes, or they are overweight? The ads got it all wrong. Sodas can make people unhappy. Works cited Kanigel, Rachele. â€Å"It Raises Diabetes Risk And Robs Bone. It's Wrecking Our Teeth. And It's Making Us Fat. The Culprit? Soda. † Prevention 58. 10 (2006): 160-207. Marr, Liz. â€Å"Soft Drinks, Childhood Overweight, and the Role of Nutrition Educators: Let's Base Our Solutions on Reality and Sound Science. † Journal of Nutrition Education & Behavior 36. 5 (2004): 258-265. Olsen, N. J. and B. L. Heitmann. â€Å"Intake of Calorically Sweetened Beverages and Obesity.† Obesity Reviews 10. 1 (2009): 68-75. Pereira, M. A. â€Å"The Possible Role of Sugar-Sweetened Beverages in Obesity Etiology: A Review of the Evidence. † International Journal of Obesity 30 (2006): S28-S36. Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter. â€Å"Cola May Up O steoporosis Risk for Older Women. † Tufts University Health & Nutrition Letter 24. 11 (2007): 1-2. Vartanian, Lenny R. , Schwartz, Marlene B. , and Kelly D. Brownell. â€Å"Effects of Soft Drink Consumption on Nutrition and Health: A Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis. † American Journal of Public Health 97. 4 (2007): 667-675.